I have a client who is a builder who had a large contract to provide building services constructing a new bungalow on land owned by a farmer.
The bungalow is on its own plot of land adjacent to the farmhouse and will be lived in by the farmer’s mother-in-law even though it is owned by the farmer and his wife.
The mother-in-law used to live in the main farmhouse with the farmer and his wife but they argued too much – hence the need for the new bungalow.
My client zero rated his building services to the farmer because he was building a new dwelling on bare land but HMRC are now trying to assess VAT against my client because apparently the bungalow cannot be sold separately from the main farmhouse.
This seems a bit strange: how would my client know this ...
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