A client company of ours is looking to purchase its own shares by transferring a property to a retiring shareholder instead of paying cash.
At first sight this would not appear to be legally possible as HMRC guidance in the Company Taxation Manual at CTM17505 states that a payment must be made in cash.
However this appears to contradict the decision in BDG Roof-Bond Ltd v Douglas [2000] 1 BCLC 401 where the court held that a transfer of assets is possible being akin to a dividend in specie.
Companies Act 2006 s 691 merely requires that the shares must be paid for on purchase – there is no specific requirement for this to be in cash.
My questions are as follows.
- First is the view of HMRC correct?
- Second if it is...
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