The main 'outgoings' of the company are VAT and corporation tax. For administrative convenience I usually effect these payments through my personal bank account.
Where the company is simply reimbursing me for the outlay I cannot see any tax difficulty. However is there a difference if the company advances me the cash before I pay it over to HMRC? I do not intend to (and do not) use the funds for my personal purposes.
I simply hold them on trust for the company. Consequently I would not have thought that I enter into the realms of close company and beneficial loans.
Do readers agree with me?
Would it make any difference if the funds were advanced to a designated account so that they are not mixed with any personal funds? In either case how should I account for the interest arising?
I would appreciate readers'...
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